
Moonbeam2009, FreeManOnLand & Dan Mcdonough:
We first thank FreeManOnLand for responding to your concern over not seeing our response more quickly. He was accurate in his presentation both regarding the many things that can cause such a delay and regarding the fact that we always make sure that all inquiries are reasonably responded to whether the response comes from Admin or from any other source. We also make sure that those responses are either correct or we will correct the responses to assure that by the end of each topical thread on our Open Forum system, all of the information provided and verified by Admin will be the most correct responses available at the time of the topical thread’s final post. Therefore, you may always rest assured in that with “No worries!”
There are a few variances between Land and property titles in Canada vs. the same in the United States of America. Primarily those variances come from the English Crown’s control over Canada for such a comparatively long time; meaning, so long as that Crown held Canada as part of the British Empire the landownership remained with the Crown. Thus, the private property owners of the property appurtenant to the land were tenants on the Crown’s land were accordingly subject (hence the term, “royal subjects”) to the Crown and were respectively required to pay tribute to the Crown. Of course, today that tenancy has ended and when it did the Queen granted her release of her royal authority over Canada; so, at that time the Land title would have returned to the people that owned the Property appurtenant to the land in question.
Now dealing with Land title:
The Title to the land is the Land Patent and though we can help Team Law beneficiaries understand the fullness of the effects of a land patent we are restricted by our Charter from revealing more than we have already revealed either on our
Land 101 article or elsewhere on
Team Law’s websites, etc. Therefore, to go any further than that this thread would have to continue to the Beneficiary Forum.
We can answer your question with, each and every one of the documents (either originals or certified copies), that changed or directed the ownership of the land from the patent to the present, is necessary to substantiate a perfect Title. Thus it appears those you had working on the project were on the right track. However you can run into problems if a party does not pass the property on while still under the feudal control of the Crown—because the property appurtenant to the land would simply revert to the Crown in absence of a living tenant owning the property appurtenant to the Land, which thing does not happen in the United States of America—where there is no Crown.
When doing title searches related to abstracts; you go to the recorder and get certified copies of any documents referenced on the abstract.
We think Dan Mcdonough was giving your next question a whirl when he provided the portion of his response that we struck out. You referred to the fact that Land cannot be transferred, bought, sold or traded. We expect Dan had understood that to mean that Land cannot be owned; however, we struck that part of his response out because Land can certainly be owned even though Land itself is not physically tangible. The fact that Land can be owned should be clear when considering the difference between Feudal Title and Allodial Title. Feudal Title describes the nature of landownership in kingdoms like Great Britain, where the King owns all of the Land (the domain; or, the intangible space). It is called “feudal” because there is in essence a “feud” or contest established between the Land owner and the owner of the property appurtenant to the land. That feud is usually resolved by terms of a contract; which makes the owner of the property appurtenant to the land “subject” to the Land owner (the owner of the domain). Allodial Title describes landownership where one or more parties own both the land and the property appurtenant to it.
Dan was correct in the balance he presented regarding Land and we give special focus to the following:
Dan Mcdonough wrote:It does help with understanding to know the difference between land and property appurtenant to it when reviewing such situations.
Again, we can only address further elements of landownership and its properties with Team Law beneficiaries so for more on that topic this topical thread would have to continue on the Beneficiary Forum.
Our responses to your remaining points follow:
Landlord status is defined by a combination between the Title to the Land and any tenancy contracts that may exist.
We don’t expect the Canadian government is trying to hide anything by not delving into such matters; because all such matters are well defined by their nature when you understand it. It is not up to any government to tell you what your rights are. Regardless of the government form, if you have to ask them to know what your rights are, then by definition you are tenants that don’t have any you don’t understand.
Rights are things of existence. They are not created by governments; rather, governments are created in accord with those existent rights. The United States Supreme Court has been well quoted to say: “If you don’t know what your rights are you don’t have any.”
Accordingly, the Magna Charta intended nothing. It did not have the capacity to “intend”; however, the Lords that compelled King John to sign it did intend to use it to compel the king to honor their inherent royal rights as inherent heirs apparent to the throne. Thus, they put him in a situation where they held him at the edge of a sword and threatened him to sign the Charter or they would get a new king. It was only too clear to him that if he did not make the mark on the document he would lose his head. The question is, did he sign?
The answer to that question is found in the laws regarding signatures. A signature is not the trail of ink on a page left by the movement of the pen in hand; rather, it is the knowing willing consensual agreement to the terms of the instrument that causes the hand to move the pen that constitutes signature.
Therefore, we ask, “Did King John sign the Magna Charta?”
The answer is clearly exemplified by the sword compelling the mark. There was obviously no knowing willing consent. It is hard to imagine in the history of that event; one must wonder why those very men went to the extent of forcing that mark but did not finish the act by taking John’s life. None of them were so fortunate; for John did, thereafter, take each of their lives for what they had done. As we recall, within three month they were all dead and King John’s order.
Respectively the Magna Charta did not become law in England; though its words have had a historical effect. Still, those words recognize no rights to the common people, they deal only with the rights of those that may in some way rise to the throne In the future.
In a country like the United States of America, the Magna Charta was quite influential considering that our laws are based on the fact that every man or woman of competent age and ability is sovereign—to such the rights defined in the Magna Charta make some sense.
We hope this information is helpful to you.
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