Land Patents

[Hpschen]

I am brand new to this, so I will be having many questions. My first question is, when someone became confirmed for a private land claim (particularly confirmations for land claims occurring because of the Louisiana land purchase), is the ownership retrospective to the date the claim was made?

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Inserted by Admin:
Because this topical thread had quite a few responses already made in it by the time we got to it, to preserve the continuity between our responses and the questions posed to Team Law we will be answering the questions so posed directly within the posts of this topical thread.

Accordingly, our response to the question posed above is: “The Land Patent is the Title to the Land and it is perfected on the date of its issue. Thus, though a land claim may have been the basis of a land patent being granted, such a land claim must stand on its own merits. The fact that such a claim becomes the basis of the Land Grant made Patent and that no element of that claim can be challenged once the land patent is issued seems to make the elements of such a claim irrelevant once the land patent is granted. Still, the answer to the question is given on the face of the Land Patent, which answer is, ‘From the time the Land Patent is issued’.”

[Vzeng1]

Welcome Hpschen to Team Law, tell more friends about us!

In the United States of America, title to land is held by the original land patent grantee and also to any of the grantees heirs and their assigns. Assigns = people who have been identified on a land ownership transfer form, like a warranty deed, for example, of having the right to aquire the rights of title and ownership by the authority of the "assigner" aka "grantor".

Could you please provide more specifics to what your are asking? Also, if you have not already, please read the Land 101 article, by Admin, and download the audio file and listen to “Do you own your own land?” located in the “online audio” section of Team Law’s website?

[Hpschen]

My question is specifically, when a person was approved by congress for a "private land claim", (in some cases the approval did not come for decades, even after they died), is there ownership from the date of patent, or from the original claim date. THE DATE IS MY QUESTION.

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Now that is a different question, from what we first answered. Even so, we expect, from our initial response, you should have already figured this one out. Again, the Claim has to stand on its own merits. Because the Claim is proven proper and without a timely contest, the Land Patent is granted and the Claim remains evidence of the cause for the government’s Grant. However, in situations where a counterclaim was raised after the Land Patent was granted the counterclaim is not heard because its lack of timely contest. In other words, the land patent is final.

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The following quote came from about the 15th paragraph in the "Land 101" section: "That means that if one receives assignment to such land through a Perfected Deed they already own it from the time the Land Patent was initially made and granted." I am trying to find out if this (owning it from the time the patent is initially made) is based upon facts, and where can I find these facts.

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That question was answered in our first response.

[Vzeng1]

Hpschen,
I have spent a ton of time reading ALL of the threads in this section and ALL of the responses. It took me some time to eventually feel like I could turn the ideas never taught to me in my adult life on "land ownership" in my own head so that I could express them in a way that made sence to me.

I'm not trying to be smart, but here are some suggestions you may want to consider based on the path I took.

First, you say you are a newbie. That's ok. We were all there. So, given that, did you take the time to read every article in this Land Patent section?
Did you read every related response, and then Admin's? If so, and you still have a question, did you then listen to the audio tape "do you own your own land" by Admin? I think you will find the answer to your question by following these suggestions.

Bottom line: A application for a claim for land ownership is not supreme in this Nation. A Land Patent is. When the words of the Land Patent state to the effect "to have and to hold to all heirs and assigns forever", if you demonstrate your acceptance of your lawful rights to any of that "tract of land" defined in the original land patent, via your Perfected Deed, then you as a matter of law and a matter of fact so demonstrate your claim to be one of those "heirs and asssigns" so mentioned. You will remain as one of these "heirs and assigns" until you either die or you convey your rights on to someone else AND they in term lawfully accept those rights. I hope this helps.

[Hpschen]

I do appreciate being responded to, thank you. While I am new to this, I would not consider myself a "newbie", though. Have I read every article in this land patent section, no, I am in the middle of doing so. I have read "land 101" through. What I am not understanding the most, at this point, is why the answer to a question, that is factually spoken about in "land 101", (AT THE TIME - referring to the moment the approved claimant becomes "LAND OWNER"), is being indirectly answered.

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We expect the reason Vzeng1 was providing you with indirect answers was twofold:

1. Because Vzeng1 is not a representative for Team Law; rather, he is simply a Team Law beneficiary trying to help you the way Team Law helps people; that is, by directing you to the source where you could find the answer for yourself.
2. Because Team Law’s method of not doing your work for you but helping you learn how to gain understanding from your own research causes people to become self-reliant especially in legal matters and when dealing with legal research. Therefore, we usually avoid direct answers, especially when the source for the answers should be self-apparent. Thus, it is likely that Vzeng1 was not aware that he was being so vague with his answers. Accordingly, he was attempting to get you to do whatever research you needed to do to find the answers you needed.

In fact, Vzeng1 was correct in providing the responses as he did. Even Admin provided the resource that proves our response by merely saying, “Still, the answer to the question is given on the face of the Land Patent, which answer is—From the time the Land Patent is issued.”

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I do already know what the land patent means, who the heirs and assigns are, and for how long. My original question has been and still remains, "When is the approved claimant a land owner?"

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This is yet again a totally different question and it has yet a different response. We cannot tell when the landowner became a landowner from the information you provided; but, that question is not relevant to the Grant of a land patent; it is relevant to the lawful process of staking a claim. If a claim is properly and lawfully staked and claimed, then the landownership will begin from the time of the lawfully staked claim. Still, that claim will not further effect the terms of the Land Patent or its date of issue.

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Perhaps I am not making myself clear so I will try an analogy: Mr. Smith lived on a tract of land in the early 1800's, him or his parents received as a British or French, etc. grant, …

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Such Grants were also land patents and accordingly, they secure Title to the Land just as well as do any other Records. The fact that they are older makes them even more powerful.

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… prior to the Louisiana Purchase of 1803. The United States sent out official land surveyors who surveyed the land; thus, purchased by the Louisiana Purchase, confirming or rejecting land claims. Some were not immediately approved, some were marked "NO CONFIRMATION FOUND" (this point a lot of folks have never heard of but it is true). Mr. Smith happened to be one of the ones who received "NO CONFIRMATION FOUND", hypothetically speaking, when his tract of land was surveyed in, say, 1851. In, say, 1927, congress issued the land patent for Mr. Smith for the very tract of land for which "NO CONFIRMATION WAS FOUND", approving and granting the patent. Now 76 years passed since Mr. Smith's tract of land was surveyed, and congress approved and granted a patent, 76 years after the surveyors marked the tract of land "NO CONFIRMATION FOUND". Now, according to law, is Mr. Smith a land owner, in the eyes of the United states, since 1851, or since the issuance of the land patent in 1927, or perhaps since him or his parents received the British or French, etc. grant prior to the Louisiana Purchase. When, when, when, the date the actual legal ownership begins. I am not trying to be smart myself, I am trying to learn.
Again I thank you, I hope I have made myself clear.

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The original Land Patent granted by the foreign country is the controlling land patent. The land could not have been purchased by the United States of America in the Louisiana Purchase if the Land was already private. However, if no proper contest of the allegation that the United States of America purchased the land from France, then it would be proper for the United States of America Land Patent to take precedence over the unclaimed Land. Again, the original foreign Land Patent would secure the issue against all subsequent claims if the chain of title from that time to the present can be proven.

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At this time Admin has to stop responding and get some rest. We will continue later.

[Vzeng1]

Hpschen,
"Newbie" was my interpretation of the comment you made when you said you are “new at this”; I guess I misunderstood. I apologize.

I'll try my best to help and remove the confusion you experienced from my indirect responses. You wrote:

My original question has been and still remains, "When is the approved claimant a land owner?" Perhaps I am not making myself clear so I will try an analogy: Mr. Smith lived on a tract of land in the early 1800's, him or his parents received as a British or French, etc. grant, prior to the Louisiana Purchase of 1803.

I don’t understand your statement above when you say “approved claimant”? So, I will assume you mean “the person requesting a Claim for land from the United States Government which was previously made patent and so granted to them”.

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Inserted by Admin.
We recognize Vzeng1’s assumption is incorrect. Team Law understands the term “approved claimant” in this context means, the ‘claimant’ that registered a Claim for Land with the United States Government’s Land Office and who had that claim approved by the General Land Office. The next step in that process was the approved claim is delivered to the President’s office for the issuance of the Land Patent (which could take quite awhile).

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Using the Standard for Review, we will attempt to look at what you said based on how you presented the scenario. This means starting from the beginning and then proceeding forward in time. Based on my understanding of what you just said, I would presume then that somewhere prior to 1803, there occurred a certain land grant made patent by an authority to issue it, such as a King (or their Assigns) and as a result of the Patent, a certain tract of land was lawfully granted to Mr. Smith's parents. Therefore, in law, having the original land grant document or a certified copy of the original document, mere presentment of this document "speaks for itself" proving the Title to the Land. Do you have this document?

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A very valid and important question; because that Land Patent is the original Title to the Land.

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The United States sent out official land surveyors who surveyed the land thus purchased by the Louisiana Purchase, confirming or rejecting land claims. Some were NOT immediately approved, some were marked "NO CONFIRMATION FOUND" (this point a lot of folks have never heard of but it is true). Mr. Smith happened to be one of the ones who received "NO CONFIRMATION FOUND", hypothetically speaking, when his tract of land was surveyed in, say, 1851.

It appears that in your example, that in 1851 when the Surveyors came around to Mr. Smiths land, the Surveyor's office was not able to find and or was not presented satisfactory evidence that proved a claim asserted by Mr. Smith that he was indeed a lawful heir to a previously issued Land grant to his parents from a foreign government. As Admin has pointed out in another post, heirs do not automatically become lawful recipients of the rights of land held by the their (the heir's) parents simply because there is a blood relationship. . Therefore, I would presume then that any claim for land being requested by the Surveyor of the United States of America would require solid documentary proof of rights of assignment and thus any tract of land not properly claimed with documentary evidence was identified as such.

In, say, 1927, congress issued the land patent for Mr. Smith for the very tract of land for which "NO CONFIRMATION WAS FOUND", approving and granting the pantent. Now 76 years passed since Mr. Smith's tract of land was surveyed, and congress approved and granted a patent, 76 years after the surveyors marked the tract of land "NO CONFIRMATION FOUND". Now, according to law, is Mr. Smith a land owner, in the eyes of the United states, since 1851, or since the issuance of the land patent in 1927, or perhaps since him or his parents recieved the British or French, etc. grant prior to the Louisiana Purchase. WHEN, WHEN, WHEN, the date the ACTUAL LEGAL OWNERSHIP BEGINS. I am not trying to be smart myself, I am trying to learn. Again I thank you, I hope I have made myself clear.

Once you can demonstrate your right to Title to the land, you become an heir instantly as of the date of the original Title. How is this possible? It is possible because of the word "Forever" in the original land Title (Land Patent). Forever, in the context of the Land Patent, doesn't necessarily bind a certain span of time to any one person but rather it refers to an everlasting span of time in which the privilege of the right to land ownership for that tract of land extends to the People always and has no expiration date. Since the Land Patent is recognized by the Constitution of the United States of America as superior, ownership rights are and will be forever upheld in supremacy law.

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Again, though Vzeng1’s comment is correct, it seems not to answer the question posed completely. The legal landownership began when the Land was first claimed and respectively granted by the original land patent. The problem arises when the surveyors come to find out what land within the area was privately owned and what land was the property claimed by France. If a valid Title to the land could not be timely produced for the surveyors showing that ownership, the land was suspected of being under the right to the public to claim it in accord with the laws of the United States of America. That particular matter was of great concern to the President, Thomas Jefferson; so much so, that he refused to sign the Louisiana Purchase when it was first presented to him. It contained so much private land and contested matters that he would not approve it. He said there was no way he could know the propriety of the thing from the hodgepodge of documents before him. Thus, Congress passed Public Law 1, which said (in essence), ‘When evidence is presented by a certified third party presentment it shall appear.’ Accordingly, the Land Office’s Surveyor General returned and presented his certified summary of the documents so presented and the same documents were presented to the President as were presented before, but this time he signed the Purchase due to the certified third party presentment.

The bottom line, if your ancestors failed to produce their Title in a timely manner the presumption would stand to imply the property was not yet properly claimed in the private venue. Accordingly, they petitioned for a land patent from the United States of America and received it. Again, Vzeng1 is correct to recognize that the land patent is final forever. That means for all time both past and future. Thus, the answer to your question is they were landowners from the time of their original claim forever—and the land patents prove that Title.

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I'm not sure why you would be so interested in the date of ownership since the right of ownership is more important than any date establishing when Title to the land was granted. This is because when you file proper documentation (Team Law can help) establishing your right, acceptance of those rights, and a description of the land you reside on, and given the fact that in the United States of America a land patent never expires, what does it matter when the date of that ownership of anyone else but you matters? If you present proper documentation that lawfully proves your rights and your acceptance of those rights which are traceable to a tract of land granted via a Land Patent of 1927, then effectively you've just lawfully demonstrated your title to land established by an official act of United States of America Government dated 1927. If you proceed with tracing your land to the British or French issued Patent to Mr. Smith parents, all you've done is spent more time trying to establish when the original title to land as of the date of the original Patent. From the sound of it, if Mr. Smith didn't demonstrated his right to ownership to the Surveyor and perhaps you may not have such a problem.

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Though we agree with Vzeng1’s point, we disagree that securing and perfecting the right to the Title to the Land even back to the original land patent would be a waste of time. That proof of Title would eliminate any potential for any eminent domain claim even from the United States of America if it can be secured with provable evidence. If I could not find the entire body of documents necessary, but found all but the grant of the inheritance from the original father (the one that received the original land patent from France) to his son, I would raise a quiet title action to prove that claim.

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Team law requires anyone that is interested in securing their lawful rights to their land (which, in this country, proves Electoral rights) to establish at least two things.

1. Documentary evidence in the form of certified copy (or original) of a Land patent issued by the Government of the United States of America or in the case of many Eastern states land, by a Foreign Government such as the King or his assigns granting of tract of land whose boundaries encompass the smaller tract of land you currently reside on; and,
2. Documentary evidence in the form of a certified copy (or original), usually in the form of some Deed, establishing a geographic description of the land and also your right to assignment of that land. Given that, if you can produce those two things, and securing Team Law’s services, you will prove at law your right and your declaration of acceptance of that right to title of the land so named in the Deed.

In my instance, I am not yet an elector. Currently, I am waiting on my certified photographed copy of the original Patent issued in 1684 by (British) Governor Dongan of the newly named Colony of New York in which a certain tract of land, in which my tiny parcel is a part of, was originally granted to a Patroon named Killean Van Rensealear and his heirs and assigns forever. Once I get that document, together with my certified copy of my Warranty Deed, I will be sending these in to Team Law to establish my Land Patent Sandwich and work toward becoming an Elector.

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We disagree. Though Vzeng1 apparently does not have the proof of his right to the Land in the form of a complete Title (the Land Patent specific to the land plus all of the land transfer documents from the land patent to the present), the proper assumption remains that the Land Patent (Title to the Land) exists as did that chain of title that proves your right to the Land; thus, though Vzeng1 cannot yet prove his right to the Title to the Land the proper presumption because he has a presumable proper Deed indicates that he is an Elector where he stands on that Land. Of course, wisdom requires securing the documentary proof of that claim so we understand Vzeng1’s point in reserving himself from making that claim. In good faith we would make that claim and continue working on perfecting it until we had perfected the Title.

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I hope you will understand that all of this landownership work is an individual effort but collectively being necessary for one primary purpose. That is, to save our Nation. Team Law has taken the position that all Electors regardless of which state they are citizens of will be required to be Landowners. This is because Electors are so important to Team Law's purpose of preserving our nation through education and respective action. If you are or become an Elector, you will at the minimum secure your position in being a direct participant of restoring our Nation's original jurisdiction government and in 2012 (we hope), have the honor and privilege to participate in seating a President of the United States of America for the first time since 1913.

I hope this helps.
Vzeng1

[Hpschen]

Vzeng1:
Regarding your comment:

(I don’t understand your statement above when you say “approved claimant”? so I will assume you mean “the person requesting a claim for land from the United States Government which was previously made patent and so granted to them”.)

I am not certain that is what I am saying, so to be clear, ("Mr. Smith's family lived on a certain tract of land prior to the Louisiana Purchase, for which the United States Government surveyed in effort to distinguish it's public land from the private land, Mr. Smith's land claim being a "Private Land Claim".) The point I am focusing on is not a previous King's grant, it is the US grant. My reference to the British or French grant is only to establish Mr. Smith's land claim as a "Private Land Claim", not for any other purpose.

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Inserted by Admin.
Too bad. It is likely that you do not understand the power of that document and the rights related to it. You might want to review our coments regarding the same, inserted in the last post in this topical thread.

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Mr. Smith, in my analogy, did have the "Private Land Claim" granted to him, in 1927, regardless of being an heir.

(As Admin has pointed out in another post, heirs do not automatically become lawful recipients of the rights of land held by the their (the heir's) parents simply because there is a blood relationship.)

Which is also not the point I am focusing on, I have not asked if I am an heir by law, I have not asked if Mr. Smith is an heir by law. Since the presiding, ruling authority over the decision to grant the private land claim was and is the United States of America, I just wanted to know what they (Congress) say about when the person thus granted has authority as an owner and could exercise such, such as entering into contracts, ect.

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They do.

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(Once you can demonstrate your right to Title to the land, you become an heir instantly as of the date of the original Title.)

In this last quote, you mention "the original Title". Of which are you talking about, the British or French land grant that existed before the Louisiana Purchase, or the one granted by the United States?

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the original Title is the Oldest Land Patent granted in relation to the Land.

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(Since the Land Patent is recognized by the Constitution of the United States of America as superior, ownership rights are and will be forever be upheld in supremacy law.)

I have not also asked how long does the ownership rights last/stand.

(I'm not sure why you would be so interested in the date of ownership since the right of ownership is more important than any date establishing when Title to the land was granted).

Mr. Smith, or his heirs and assigns should be interested in the date of ownership, because Mr. Smith's private land claim, in my analogy, was granted by the United States, 76 years after the claim, or being marked "no confirmation found", and Mr. Smith was already dead, so in Mr. Smith's case, the tract of land remained only a claim while he was alive. Was Mr. Smith legally allowed to enter into any contracts, taxes, mortgages, etc., since the land was at the time legally the United States of America's via the Louisiana Purchase? Or, since the United States of America granted the title to Mr. Smith, in 1927, 76 years after the claim, does this make any contracts Mr. Smith may have entered into while he was alive legal and binding?
So the Date just might matter, make a difference, and since this is so factually spoken about, as though it is common sense, someone has to have knowledge of what the Law is on that subject.

[Admin]

Hpschen:
First, we must address the fact that we do not usually entertain hypothetical situations here on our Open Forum system; accordingly, had Admin had the opportunity to respond to your inquiry in the first instance and the nature of the inquiry turned toward a hypothetical situation, that kind of review is limited to Team Law beneficiary support; so, we would not have been able to resolve it here.

Second, we apologize for not having time sufficient to respond earlier but our summer has been hectic and I have my first daughter getting married in August; so, time is getting squeezed for all we can get out of it. We believe our initial answer to your question would have sufficed for your needs without getting into all of that other detail.

Still, we hope the discussion helped you.

We also want to express our thanks to Vzeng1 for his willingness to jump out there and share his understanding. The idea is first you learn and then you share. The process causes even greater education and helps correct misgivings that can pop up. So, Vzeng1, “We thank you.”

Finally, Hpschen, in you last paragraph you got to yet another question related to the obligation of contracts; and, it seems like that question was the real cause for your inquiry. That question also points out that you were not really inquiring about Landownership; rather, you were inquiring about ownership of the property appurtenant to Land, which is an entirely different subject that has not been discussed yet in the entirety of this topical thread.

The answer to that question is, contracts are always binding regardless of whether you enter into them with full faith and credibility or not. When you enter into a contract you are required to fulfill it in accord with its terms or you are subject to its terms. Accordingly, if you enter into a contract to produce property appurtenant to Land and you cannot deliver in accord with the terms of the contract because you never owned or controlled the property in question, that limitation will not alleviate you from the terms of the contract. Thus, if you make a claim of such ownership but you do not have the same you may be guilty of fraud.

No one has the right to limit you from contracts you choose to make except you or the other parties to the contract; and, their only remedy is due diligence and the agency to avoid the contract if they choose.

Still, in the hypothetical situation you proposed, Mr. Smith seems to have entered into contractual relations and he would accordingly, be accountable to the terms of those agreements. For all reasonable causes the documents speak for themselves and the claim on the land legally and lawfully secures the right to the land and to the property appurtenant to the land from all others; accordingly, the claimant has the right to freely contract with that claim from the instance of its origin, regardless of the Land Patent’s date.

The documents speak for themselves; including but not limited to: the claim; the contracts; and, the Land Patent.

We hope this information is helpful to you.
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[Hpschen]

I again appreciate the responses. Thank you for your explanation about "land ownership". As it stands, I have never seen a land patent, nor do I know what is written on it.

[Admin]

Hpschen:
In the “Do You Own Your Land?” article of our WARN newsletter, volume 1 issue 1, you will find a review of a land patent. The article provides the typical language found in land patents issued by the United States of America.

We hope this information is helpful to you.
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[Hpschen]

Is it possible for a grant to be made and the patent not to be made for the grant?

[Admin]

Hpschen:
As noted above this topical thread should have been allowed only in the Beneficiary Forum; however, we will again respond to it this one last time because the answer to your current question can be simplistically provided.

The answer follows the often quoted common saying, “Anything is possible.”
Yet the likelihood of such a thing is far remote and would not make much of a difference on anything.
As with School Listed land, those grants are not patent secured but in law, the grant is covered by equally powerful unquestionable legislative authority. Thus, they are treated the same as land patents and are considered as land patent secured lands.

As we just noted we cannot delve into such matters further in this forum but we could help a Team Law beneficiary with further educational services addressing the same.

We hope this information is helpful to you.
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[Sjohn1]

Hello,
I'd like to know if Land Patents are reversible by the Patent Holder?

Thank You.

[Admin]

Sjohn1:
Because we understand what land patents are, we do not understand your question.
Thus, we expect you are imagining the land patent to be something that it is not.

Nonetheless, the answer to your question is: “Land patent’s are not reversible by anyone.”

Again, we expect the question you asked is not the question you intended to ask and that you have and error in your presupposition of what a land patent is.

We hope this information is helpful to you.
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[Sjohn1]

Please, I'm not looking for confrontation or a play on words here. I'm not here to be be-littled. I know there are many backgrounds on this site and one must not assume that we are all lawyers or that most of us even know or have the ability to interpret the law. If we did your site wouldn't be necessary. I simply asked, if Land Patents are reversible by the patent holder. It wasn't a bad question there are no bad questions. If you know what a land patent is then please, by all means, show me the thread that best describes in detail and I will gladly do the research.

Thank You

[Admin]

Sjohn1:
We do not understand your response.
Your question was not challenged; rather, we answered your question plainly.

The answer to your question is: “Land patent’s are not reversible by anyone.”

Therefore, our answer remains, "No."

Regardless of your background, how can our response possibly be construed as a “confrontation”, a “play on words” or as ‘be-littleing’?

That notwithstanding, your original question remains a mystery to us; because, we cannot comprehend how such a question can exist if a person understands what a land patent is; which is why we stated that we expect you might be imagining that the land patent is something that it is not.

We know people come from many backgrounds to our site and we expect most are neither lawyers nor have much knowledge of the law; but, if they were, given the nature of our situation in this country today, then our site would be even more necessary than it is with the people being generally ignorant of such matters.

Perhaps you misunderstood the purpose for Team Law; which purpose is to inspire people to learn how to learn the law. In other words, we rarely just give you answers to matters that are right in front of you; rather, we point you to the answers so you can discover them for yourself; that way you learn how to resolve such matters.

Thus, if you think we have any other purpose other than to help people learn the law so we can together save our country, then perhaps you should review more of what we have presented; so you can better understand our intent.

Regarding your last request:

If you know what a land patent is then please, by all means, show me the thread that best describes in detail and I will gladly do the research.

Though the lead article in this Land Patents Forum, Land 101, does that quite well, we just posted a list of articles that would serve your request well in the topic Re: Land Patent Sandwich. Of course, you could just read one and that might help immensely. If you will follow said list, and do the reading, you will read the actual words of a land patent; and, that might help you quite a lot in your understanding.

Again, we hope this information is helpful to you.
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[Hpschen]

Hello, I am back, I have been very busy.

A patent is evidence, in a court of law, of the regularity of all previous steps to it, and no facts behind it can be investigated. A patent cannot be collaterally avoided at law, even for fraud. … A patent, being superior title, must of course, prevail over colors of title; nor is it proper for any state legislation to give such titles, which are only equitable in nature with a recognized legal status in equity courts, precedence over the legal title in a court of law.

Adverse Possession; Acquisitive Prescription; Liberal Prescription; Extinctive Prescription or Prescription by nonuse; State issued Patent; Squatters Right and on, and on.
Most of these types of ways to acquire title are spelled out and put into law, by the States, or so it appears, many of them written in Civil Code.

My question(s) is are these considered "colors of title" that a State legislation gives out, when the particular State legislation writes them in Civil Code, and so does a Patent from the United States, which has not been conveyed, assigned, or any part of the land appertunate to it, been given out, conveyed, assigned, by the one to whom the Patent is given, prevail over these?

[Admin]

Hpschen:
Our last response to you in this topical thread restated a portion of our first response to this topic as follows:

This topical thread should have been allowed only in the Beneficiary Forum; however, we will again respond to it this one last time.

Thus, we had hoped that you would understand, that was the last response we could make to you on this topic due to the purpose for our Open Forum (as shown in our Forum Rules at Rule 3.), which is: “To eliminate e-mail to and from Team Law while providing a resource where people can learn about Team Law and our work to preserve our country.” In fact, our Charter forbids us from providing Team Law beneficiary style support to anyone that is not a Team Law beneficiary unless that person is new to Team Law and needs a bit of help learning something about the law that will help them learn Team Law is worthy of their support. Thus, once anyone becomes aware that Team Law is worthy of their support, we are respectively limited from providing them with that support until they are Team Law beneficiaries.

By now, it is apparent that you have developed your understanding about Team Law well enough to know we are worthy of your support; otherwise you would not be asking further questions in this topical thread.

Also, as noted above, the technical level of this topical thread is such that this topic can go no further in this Open Forum; therefore we will respond further to your inquiry in our Beneficiary Forum where this topical thread can continue through the following link: Re: Land Patents.

Accordingly, when you are a Team Law beneficiary you will be able to follow that link and get our response.

We hope this information is helpful to you.
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